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Shared Assessments Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Sample Questions (Q39-Q44):

NEW QUESTION # 39
Which approach demonstrates GREATER maturity of physical security compliance?

A. Providing a checklist for self-assessment
B. Conducting unannounced checks an an ac-hac basis
C. Maintaining a standardized scheduled for confirming controls to defined standards
D. Leveraging periodic reporting to schedule facility inspections based on reported events

Answer: C

Explanation:
According to the Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, physical security compliance is the process of ensuring that the physical assets and personnel of an organization are protected from unauthorized access, theft, damage, or harm1. Physical security compliance can be achieved by implementing various measures, such as locks, alarms, cameras, guards, fences, badges, etc. However, these measures need to be regularly monitored, tested, and verified to ensure their effectiveness and alignment with the defined standards and policies2. Therefore, maintaining a standardized schedule for confirming controls to defined standards demonstrates a greater maturity of physical security compliance, as it indicates a proactive and consistent approach to assessing and improving the physical security posture of an organization3.
The other options do not reflect a high level of physical security compliance maturity, as they either rely on reactive or ad hoc methods, or lack sufficient verification and validation mechanisms. Leveraging periodic reporting to schedule facility inspections based on reported events may indicate a lack of preventive and predictive measures, as well as a dependency on external or internal incidents to trigger the inspections.
Providing a checklist for self-assessment may indicate a lack of independent and objective evaluation, as well as a potential for bias or error in the self-assessment process. Conducting unannounced checks on an ad hoc basis may indicate a lack of planning and coordination, as well as a potential for disruption or inconsistency in the checks.
References:
* 1: Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, page 24
* 2: Physical Security: Planning, Measures & Examples + PDF - Avigilon
* 3: Security Maturity Models: Levels, Assessment, and Benefits
* [4]: Best Practices for Planning and Managing Physical Security Resources - CISA, page 10
* [5]: Self-Assessment vs. Independent Assessment: What's the Difference? | Linford & Company LLP
* [6]: The Pros and Cons of Unannounced Audits | NQA

NEW QUESTION # 40
What is the primary purpose of testing patches before deployment in patch management?

A. To accelerate the speed of deployment across all systems and devices.
B. To reduce the overall cost of maintenance by deploying fewer, more stable updates.
C. To document the changes made to the system for auditing and compliance purposes.
D. To ensure they address vulnerabilities without introducing new issues.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Testing patches before deployment is crucial to ensure that they effectively fix vulnerabilities without causing new problems, such as system instability or the introduction of new security gaps. This testing process helps verify that the security improvements intended by the patches are achieved without adversely affecting the software's or system's functionality.

NEW QUESTION # 41
The primary focus of third-party risk assessments should be on the __________ of adverse events.

A. immediacy and visibility of incidents
B. certainty and control over external factors
C. severity and frequency of positive outcomes
D. likelihood and potential impact

Answer: D

Explanation:
Focusing on the likelihood and potential impact of adverse events ensures that risk assessments are directed towards quantifying and understanding risks that can substantially affect the organization's operations and objectives, thereby enabling more effective mitigation strategies.

NEW QUESTION # 42
In an information security incident, what is crucial to specify in the notification sent to affected clients?

A. Steps for clients to follow to protect their information
B. Details about the data accessed by unauthorized parties
C. Information on how to protect personal data
D. Objectives, scope, and content of notification

Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer outlines what should be clearly stated in any notification to clients following an information security incident: the objectives for notifying, what the notification will cover, and the details to be included. This ensures transparency and clarity in communication.

NEW QUESTION # 43
Which factor is MOST important when scoping assessments of cloud-based third parties that access, process, and retain personal data?

A. The geographic location of the vendor's outsourced datacenters since assessments are only required for international data transfers
B. The contract terms for the configuration of the environment which may prevent conducting the assessment
C. The definition of requirements for backup capabilities for power generation and redundancy in the resilience plan
D. The identification of the type of cloud hosting deployment or service model in order to confirm responsibilities between the third party and the cloud hosting provider

Answer: D

Explanation:
The most important factor when scoping assessments of cloud-based third parties that access, process, and retain personal data is to identify the type of cloud hosting deployment or service model. This is because different cloud models have different implications for the allocation of security responsibilities between the third party and the cloud hosting provider. For example, in a Software as a Service (SaaS) model, the cloud provider is responsible for most of the security controls, while in an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model, the third party is responsible for securing its own data and applications. Therefore, it is essential to understand the type of cloud model and the corresponding security roles and responsibilities before conducting an assessment. This will help to avoid gaps, overlaps, or conflicts in security controls and expectations.
References:
* Guidance on Cloud Security Assessment and Authorization - ITSP.50.105, Canadian Centre for Cyber Security, May 2020, Section 2.1.1
* The Importance of Properly Scoping Cloud Environments, PCI Security Standards Council and Cloud Security Alliance, August 2021
* Third party and cloud: Regulatory challenges, KPMG, 2022, Section 2.1
* Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, Shared Assessments, 2021, Section 4.2.2

NEW QUESTION # 44
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